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\newcount\probno
\probno=0
\def\prob{\advance\probno by 1 \bigskip\par\noindent\the\probno . }
\def\by{\times}
\def\entry{{\rm entry}}
\def\span{{\rm span}}
\def\mat{{\rm MAT}}
\def\topz{{\rm T}}
\def\reals{{\bf R}}

\begin{document}

\centerline{A. Miller \hfill M340 \hfill Exam 2 \hfill April 97}

\bigskip

You may use without proof any theorem proved in class, all of
which are on the
fourteen page handout; however when you do so, you should
{\bf state the result} you are using.
You may also use any assigned
exercise, but in this case you should {\bf state the exercise and
give a full proof} of the exercise in your solution.

\bigskip

\prob  Suppose $V$ is a vector space, $W$ is a subset of $V$,
and $v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n$ are elements of $V$.
\par Define
\begin{enumerate}
\begin{enumerate}
  \item $W$ is a subspace of $V$.
  \item $\span(\{v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n\})$.
  \item $v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n$ are linearly independent.
  \item $v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n$ are linearly dependent.
  \item $v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n$ are a basis for $V$.
\end{enumerate}
\end{enumerate}

\prob A. Let $u_1,u_2,u_3$ be elements of a vector space.
Suppose
$$v_1=u_1-u_2$$
$$v_2=u_2-u_3$$
$$v_3=u_3-u_1$$
Prove that $v_1,v_2,v_3$ are linearly dependent.

B.  Suppose $u_1,u_2,u_3$ is a basis of the vector space $V$.
Let
$$v_1=u_1+u_2$$
$$v_2=u_2+u_3$$
$$v_3=u_1+u_3$$
Prove that $v_1,v_2,v_3$ is a basis of $V$.

\prob  A matrix $A_{n\times n}$ is Toplitz iff it is constant
on all its `diagonals'.  For example:
$$A=
\left[
\begin{array}{rrrr}
                 0  &   6  &  -4  & 0   \\
                -8  &   0  &  6  & -4   \\
                -2  &  -8  &  0  & 6   \\
                 6  &  -2  & -8  & 0   \\
\end{array}
\right]
$$
So  $\entry_{i,j}(A)=0$ if $i=j$ or $i-j=0$,
$\entry_{i,j}(A)=-8$ if $i-j=1$, $\entry_{i,j}(A)=6$
if $i-j=-1$, etc.
More precisely an $n\times n$ matrix $A$ is Toplitz iff
for all $i,j,i^\prime, j^\prime$ between $1$ and $n$
$$\mbox{ if }i-j=i^\prime-j^\prime \mbox{ then }
\entry_{i,j}(A)=entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(A).$$

A. Prove that
$$\topz_n=\{A\in \mat_{n\times n}: A \mbox{ is Toplitz }\}$$
is a subspace of $\mat_{n\times n}$.
If you would prefer you may assume $n=4$, i.e., show
$\topz_4$ is a subspace of the $4\times 4$ matrices.


B. Find a formula for the dimension of $\topz_n$ in terms of $n$, i.e.,
$$\dim(\topz_n)=?$$
Justify your formula by writing down a basis for $\topz_3$ and $\topz_4$.


\prob  Let $A$ be the following matrix:
$$A=
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                0  &  1 \\
                1  &  0\\
\end{array}
\right]
$$
Let $W$ be defined as follows:
$$W=\{B\in\mat_{2,2}: AB=BA\}$$
Find a basis for $W$ and prove that it is a basis.

\prob  Suppose $A$ is any $n\times n$ matrix.
Prove there exists a polynomial
$$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+\cdots+a_kx^k$$
of degree $k$ with $1\leq k\leq n^2$ such that
$$p(A)=a_0I+a_1A+a_2A^2+\cdots+a_kA^k=Z$$
where $I$ is the $n\times n$ identity matrix and $Z$ is the
$n\times n$ zero matrix.

\bigskip

Hint: What is the dimension of $\mat_{n,n}$ and what is
the size of the set $\{0,1,2,\ldots,n^2\}$?

\newpage

\begin{center}
  Answers
\end{center}

\bigskip

\par 1a. $u,v\in W$ implies $u+v\in W$ and $au\in W$.
\par 1b. $\span(\{u_1,\ldots,u_n\})=\{a_1u_1+\cdots+a_nu_n:
  a_1,...,a_n \mbox{ scalars}\}$
\par 1c. $a_1v_1+a_2v_2+\cdots+a_nv_n=z$ implies $a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_n=0$
\par 1d. not linearly indendent.
\par 1e. linearly independent and spans $V$.

\bigskip

2A. $v_1+v_2+v_3=(u_1-u_2)+(u_2-u_3)+(u_3-u_1)=z$.

2B. We show $v_1,v_2,v_3$ are linearly independent.
Suppose $$av_1+bv_2+cv_3=z.$$  Then
$$a(u_1+u_2)+b(u_2+u_3)+c(u_1+u_3)=z \mbox{ so }
(a+c)u_1+(a+b)u_2+(b+c)u_3=z.$$
Since $u_1,u_2,u_3$ are linearly
independent we have $a+c=0$, $a+b=0$, and $b+c$=0.  Solving for
$a,b,c$ we get $a=-c=b$ so $a=b$.  But $a=-b$ also so
$b=-b$ and so $b=0$. Since $a=-c=b$, we have $a=0$ and $c=0$.
This shows
$v_1,v_2,v_3$ are linearly independent.  Since any $n$ linearly independent
vectors in a vector space of dimension $n$ is a basis, it follows
that $v_1,v_2,v_3$ is a basis.

Remark: Many students asserted without proof that
$$\span(\{u_1,u_2,u_3\})=\{(a+c)u_1+(a+b)u_2+(b+c)u_3:a,b,c\in\reals\}$$
But if $u_1,u_2,u_3$ are linearly independent, then
$$\span(\{u_1,u_2,u_3\})\not=
\{(a-c)u_1+(b-a)u_2+(c-a)u_3:a,b,c\in\reals\}$$
(This follows from the fact the $v_1,v_2,v_3$ in part A are
linearly dependent.)  So something must be proved.
A correct proof can be given by showing that for any $a_1,a_2,a_3$
there exists $a,b,c$ so that $a+b=a_1$, $b+c=a_2$, and $b+c=a_3$.

\bigskip

3.A.  Suppose $A,B\in\topz_n$.  Suppose $i-j=i^\prime-j^\prime$
and $a,b$ are scalars.
Then since $A$ and $B$ are Toplitz,
$$\entry_{i,j}(A)=\entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(A) \mbox{ and }
\entry_{i,j}(B)=\entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(B).$$  But
then
$$\entry_{i,j}(aA+bB)=a\entry_{i,j}(A)+ b\entry_{i,j}(B)= $$
$$a\entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(A)+b\entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(B)=
\entry_{i^\prime,j^\prime}(aA+bB)$$
Hence $(aA+bB)\in\topz_n$.

3.B $\dim(\topz_n)=2n-1$.
$$
\left[
\begin{array}{ccc}
                 0  &   0  &  0    \\
                 0  &   0  &  0    \\
                 1  &   0  &  0    \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{ccc}
                 0  &   0  &  0    \\
                 1  &   0  &  0    \\
                 0  &   1  &  0    \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{ccc}
                 1  &   0  &   0    \\
                 0  &   1  &   0    \\
                 0  &   0  &   1   \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{ccc}
                 0  &   1  &   0    \\
                 0  &   0  &   1    \\
                 0  &   0  &   0    \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{ccc}
                 0  &   0  &  1    \\
                 0  &   0  &  0    \\
                 0  &   0  &  0    \\
\end{array}
\right]$$
is a basis for $\topz_3$.  (Similarly for $\topz_4$.)
Each basis vector is determined by a diagonal and there
are $2n-1$ diagonals.  (Count the number of entries in
a $n\times n$ matrix which are in either the first row or
first column. The $-1$ is there because the $1,1$ is counted twice.)

\bigskip

4.
$$
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 a  &   b     \\
                 c  &   d     \\
\end{array}
\right]
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right]
=
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right]
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 a  &   b     \\
                 c  &   d     \\
\end{array}
\right]
$$
gives us
$$
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 c  &   d     \\
                 a  &   b     \\
\end{array}
\right]
=
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 b  &   a     \\
                 d  &   c     \\
\end{array}
\right]
$$
and therefore $a=d$ and $b=c$.  So
$$
W=\{B\in\mat_{2,2}: AB=BA\}=\{
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 a  &   b     \\
                 b  &   a     \\
\end{array}
\right]: a,b \in\reals\}$$
We show
$$
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 1  &   0     \\
                 0  &   1     \\
\end{array}
\right]
$$
is a basis for $W$.  To see they are linearly independent, suppose
$$
a\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right]+
b\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 1  &   0     \\
                 0  &   1     \\
\end{array}
\right]=
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 a  &   b     \\
                 b  &   a     \\
\end{array}
\right]=
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   0     \\
                 0  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right].$$
But then $a=b=0$. To see that they span $W$:
$$\span(\{\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right],
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 1  &   0     \\
                 0  &   1     \\
\end{array}
\right]\})=
\{
a\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 0  &   1     \\
                 1  &   0     \\
\end{array}
\right]+
b\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 1  &   0     \\
                 0  &   1     \\
\end{array}
\right]: a,b\in\reals\}= $$
$$
=\{
\left[
\begin{array}{cc}
                 a  &   b     \\
                 b  &   a     \\
\end{array}
\right]: a,b \in\reals\}=W$$

\bigskip

5. The dimension of the vector space $\mat_{n,n}$ is $n^2$. The
{\bf Main Theorem}
proved in class is that if a vector space is spanned by $m$ vectors,
then any sequence of $m+1$ vectors is linearly dependent.
The sequence of $n\times n$ matrices
$$I_{n\times n},A,A^2,A^3,\ldots,A^{n^2}$$
has length $n^2+1$ and is therefore linearly dependent. So
there exists a nontrivial linear combination
$$a_0I_{n\times n}+a_1A+a_2A^2+\cdots+a_{n^2}A^{n^2}=Z_{n\times n}$$
Let $k$ be the largest such that $a_k\not=0$, clearly $k>0$
because $a_0I\not=Z$ if $a_0\not=0$, and
so
$$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+\cdots+a_kx^k$$
is a polynomial with degree $k$ ($1\leq k\leq n^2$) such that $p(A)=Z$.

\bigskip
\bigskip

\hrule

\bigskip

Grading Key:

1. 4 pts each definition, 2 if partially right

2. 10 part A, 10 part B - 5 each for span,lin indep

3. 10 each part

4. 10 for a correct basis, 5 each for showing lin indep and spans

5. 2 each for $\dim(\mat_{n,n})=n^2$ and
size of $\{0,1,\ldots,n^2\}$ is $n^2+1$.

\end{document}